What's the first wrong statement in the proof below that $ \triangle BDE \cong \triangle BCE$ $ \; ?$ $ \overline{BC} $ is parallel to $ \overline{DF} $. This diagram is not drawn to scale. $A$ $B$ $C$ $D$ $E$ $F$ Givens $ \overline{CF} \cong \overline{BD}$ $, \ $ $ \angle CFE \cong \angle DBE$ $, \ $ $ \angle CEF \cong \angle BED$ $, \ $ $ \overline{AB} \cong \overline{BE}$ $, \ $ $ \angle BAC \cong \angle BED$ $, \ $ and $\ $ $ \overline{AC} \cong \overline{DE}$ Proof $ \triangle BDE \cong \triangle FCE$ because AAS $ \overline{DE} \cong \overline{CE}$ because corresponding parts of congruent triangles are congruent $ \triangle BCA \cong \triangle BDE$ because AAS $ \angle BCE \cong \angle CEF$ because alternate interior angles are equal $ \angle BDE \cong \angle ECF$ because corresponding parts of congruent triangles are congruent $ \triangle BDE \cong \triangle BCE$ because SSS
Answer: Try going through the proof yourself: write down the givens, and then see if they justify the next step for the reason given. Then do the same thing for the next step, and the next, until you run into something that you can't justify, or you finish the proof. $ \triangle BDE \cong \triangle BCA$ is the first wrong statement.